Which statement could be used to explain why f(x) = 2x – 3 has an inverse relation that is a function?

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22-07-2017
Mathematics

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Which statement could be used to explain why f(x) = 2x – 3 has an inverse relation that is a function?

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irspow irspow · Answer 1 · 2017-07-22T18:20:16+02:00

irspow irspow

22-07-2017

Since f(x) has a domain and range of all real numbers, it's inverse also has a domain and range of all real numbers. Furthermore since every value pair of (x,y) for f(x) is unique, its inverse will also have the inverse unique value pairs (y,x).

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billybobman123 billybobman123 · Answer 2 · 2019-04-16T16:39:19+02:00

billybobman123 billybobman123

16-04-2019

Answer:

f(x) is a one to one function

Step-by-step explanation:

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